CBSE/UGC JRF/NET 22 JANUARY 2017 COMPUTER SCIENCE & APPLICATIONS
PAPER-II ANSWER KEY
Q.
No.
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Answer
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Q.
No.
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Answer
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Q.
No.
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Answer
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Q.
No.
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Answer
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Q.
No.
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Answer
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1.
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A
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2.
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A
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3.
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D
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4.
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C
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5.
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D
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6.
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D
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7.
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B
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8.
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C/D
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9.
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A
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10.
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C
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11.
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D
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12.
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A
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13.
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B
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14.
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D
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15.
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B
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16.
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B
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17.
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C
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18.
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D
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19.
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A
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20.
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X
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21.
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C
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22.
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B
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23.
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B
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24.
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A
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25.
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B
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26.
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A
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27.
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X
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28.
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D
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29.
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C
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30.
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B
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31.
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D
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32.
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A
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33.
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D
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34.
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C
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35.
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A
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36.
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A
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37.
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B
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38.
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D
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39.
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B
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40.
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C
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41.
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C
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42.
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D
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43.
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B
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44.
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B
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45.
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B
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46.
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A
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47.
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A
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48.
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B
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49.
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D
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50.
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C
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1.
Consider a sequence F00 defined as:
(1) (1, 110, 1200)
(2)
(1, 110, 600, 1200)
(3)
(1, 2, 55, 110, 600, 1200)
(4)
(1, 55, 110, 600, 1200)
2.
Match the following:
List-I
List-II
a.
Absurd i. Clearly impossible
being contrary to some evident truth.
b.
Ambiguous ii. Capable of more than one interpretation or meaning.
c.
Axiom iii. An
assertion that is accepted and used without a proof.
d.
Conjecture iv. An opinion Preferably based on some experience or
wisdom.
Codes:
a b c d
(1) i
ii iii iv
(2)
i iii iv ii
(3)
ii iii iv i
(4)
ii i iii iv
3.
The functions mapping R into R are defined as:
f(x)
= x3-4x, g(x)=1/(x2+1) and h(x)=x4
Then
find the value of the following composite functions:
hog(x)
and hogof(x)
(1)
(x2+1)4 and [(x3-4x)2+1]4
(2)
(x2+1)4 and [(x3-4x)2+1]- 4
(3)
(x2+1)- 4 and [(x3-4x)2+1]4
(4) (x2+1)‑ 4 and [(x3-4x)2+1]-
4
4.
How many multiples of 6 are there between the following pairs of numbers?
0
and 100
and -6 and 34
(1)
16 and 6
(2)
17 and 6
(3) 17 and 7
(4)
16 and 7
5.
Consider a Hamiltonian Graph G with no loops or parallel edges and with |V(G)|=n≥3.
Then which of the following is true?
(1)
deg(v) ≥ n/2 for each vertex v.
(2)
|E(G)| ≥ 1/2(n-1)(n-2)+2
(3)
deg(v)+deg(w) ≥ n whenever v and w are not connected by an edge.
(4) All of the above
6.
In propositional logic if (P→Q)˄(R→S) and (P˅R) are two premises such
that
Y is the
premise:
(1) P˅R
(2) P˅S
(3) Q˅R
(4) Q˅S
7.
ECL is the fastest of all logic families. High Speed in ECL is possible
because transistors are used in difference amplifier configuration, in which
they are never driven into ...............
(1) Race
condition
(2) Saturation
(3) Delay
(4) High
impedance
8.
A binary 3-bit down counter uses J-K flip-flops, FFi with
inputs Ji, Ki and outputs Qi, i=0,1,2
respectively. The minimized expression for the input from following, is
I. J0=K0=0
II. J0=K0=1
III. J1=K1=Q0
IV. J1=K1=Q'0
V. J2=K2=Q1Q0
Vl. J2=K2=Q'1Q'0
(1) I, Ill,
V
(2) I, IV,
VI
(3) Il, III, V
(4) Il, IV, Vl
9.
Convert the octal number 0.4051 into its equivalent decimal number.
(1) 0.5100098
(2) 0.2096
(3) 0.52
(4) 0.4192
10. The
hexadecimal equivalent of the octal number 2357 is:
(1) 2EE
(2) 2FF
(3) 4EF
(4) 4FE
11. Which of the following cannot be passed to a function in C++?
(1) Constant
(2) Structure
(3) Array
(4)
Header file
12.
Which one of the following is correct for overloaded functions in C++?
(1)
Compiler sets up a separate function for every definition of function.
(2) Compiler does not set up a separate
function for every definition of function.
(3) Overloaded functions cannot handle
different types of objects.
(4) Overloaded functions cannot have
same number of arguments.
13.
Which of the following storage classes have global visibility in C/C++?
(1) Auto
(2)
Extern
(3) Static
(4) Register
14.
Which of the following operators cannot be overloaded in C/C++?
(1) Bitwise right shift assignment
(2) Address of
(3) Indirection
(4)
Structure reference
15.
If X is a binary number which is power of 2, then the value of
X&(X-1) is:
(1) 11....11
(2)
00.....00
(3) 100.....0
(4) 000.....1
16. An attribute A of datatype varchar(20)
has value 'Ram' and the attribute B of datatype char(20) has value 'Sita' in
oracle. The attribute A has .......... memory spaces and B has ..........
memory spaces.
(1)
20, 20
(2) 3, 20
(3)
3, 4
(4)
20, 4
17. Integrity constraints ensure that
changes made to the database by authorized users do not result into loss of
data consistency. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) true w.r.t. the
examples of integrity constraints?
(A)
An instructor Id. No. cannot be null, provided Instructor Id. No. being primary
key.
(B)
No two citizens have same Adhar-Id.
(C)
Budget of a company must be zero.
(1)
(A), (B) and (C) are true.
(2)
(A) false, (B) and (C) are true.
(3) (A) and (B) are
true; (C) false.
(4)
(A), (B) and (C) are false.
18. Let M and N be two entities in an E-R
diagram with simple single vale attributes. R1 and R2 are two relationship
between M and N, whereas
R1
is one-to-many and R2 is many-to-many.
The
minimum number of tables required to represent M, N, R1 and R2 in the
relational model are ..........
(1)
4
(2)
6
(3)
7
(4) 3
19. Consider a schema R(MNPQ) and functional
dependencies M→N, P→Q. Then the decomposition of R into R1(MN) and R2(PQ) is
.............
(1) Dependency
preserving but not lossless join.
(2)
Dependency preserving and lossless join
(3)
Lossless join but not dependency preserving
(4)
Neither dependency preserving nor lossless join.
20. The order of a leaf node in a B+ tree is
the maximum number of children it can have. Suppose that block size is 1
kilobytes, the child pointer takes 7 bytes long and search field value takes 14
bytes long. The order of the leaf node is ............
(1)
16
(2)
63
(3)
64
(4)
65
21.
Which of the following is true for computation time in insertion,
deletion and finding maximum and minimum element in a sorted array?
(1)
Insertion-O(1), Deletion-O(1), Maximum-O(1), Minimum-O(1)
(2)
Insertion-O(1), Deletion-O(1), Maximum-O(n), Minimum-O(n)
(3) Insertion-O(n), Deletion-O(n),
Maximum-O(1), Minimum-O(1)
(4)
Insertion-O(n), Deletion-O(n), Maximum-O(n), Minimum-O(n)
22.
The seven elements A, B, C, D, E, F and G are pushed onto a stack in
reverse order, i.e., starting from G. The stack is popped five times and each
element is inserted into a queue. Two elements are deleted from the queue and
pushed back onto the stack. Now, one element is popped from the stack. The
popped item is ...................
(1) A
(2) B
(3) F
(4) G
23.
Which of the following is a valid heap?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
24.
If h is chosen from a universal collection of hash functions and is used
to hash n keys into a table of size m, where n≤m, the expected number of
collisions involving a particular key x is less than ...................
(1) 1
(2) 1/n
(3) 1/m
(4) n/m
25.
Which of the following statements is false?
(A) Optimal
binary search tree construction can be performed efficiently using dynamic
programming.
(B)
Breadth-first search cannot be used to find connected components of a graph.
(C) Given
the prefix and postfix walks of a binary tree, the tree cannot be
re-constructed uniquely.
(D)
Depth-first-search can be used to find the components of a graph.
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
26. Match the following Layers and Protocols for a user browsing with SSL:
a.
Application of layer
i. TCP
b. Transport
layer ii. IP
c. Network
layer iii. PPP
d. Datalink
layer iv. HTTP
Codes:
a b c d
(1) iv i
ii iii
(2) iii
ii i iv
(3) ii
iii iv i
(4) iii
i iv ii
27.
The maximum size of the data that the application layer can pass on to
the TCP layer below is .........
(1) 216
bytes
(2) 216
bytes + TCP header length
(3) 216
bytes - TCP header length
(4) 215
bytes
28.
A packet whose destination is outside the local TCP/IP network segment
is sent to ..............
(1) File
server
(2) DNS
server
(3) DHCP
server
(4) Default gateway
29.
Distance vector routing algorithm is a dynamic routing algorithm. The
routing tables in distance vector routing algorithm are updated ...........
(1)
automatically
(2) by
server
(3) by exchanging information with
neighbour nodes.
(4) with
back up database
30. In link
state routing algorithm after construction of link state packets, new routes
are computed using:
(1) DES
algorithm
(2) Dijkstra's algorithm
(3) RSA
algorithm
(4) Packets
31. Which of the following strings would match the regular expression: p+[3-5]*[xyz]?
I. p443y
Il. p6y
III. 3xyz
IV. p35z
V. p353535x
Vl. ppp5
(1) I, III and Vl only
(2) IV, V and VI only
(3) II, IV and V only
(4) I, IV and V only
32. Consider the
following assembly language instructions:
mov al, 15
mov ah, 15
xor al, al
mov cl, 3
shr ax, cl
add al, 90H
adc ah, 0
What is the value in ax register after execution of above
instructions?
(1) 0270H
(2) 0170H
(3) 01E0H
(4) 0370H
33. Consider the
following statements related to compiler construction:
I. Lexical Analysis is specified by context-free grammars and
implemented by pushdown automata.
II. Syntax Analysis is specified by regular expressions and
implemented by finite-state machine.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(1) Only l
(2) Only ll
(3) Both I and II
(4) Neither I nor Il
34. The contents of
Register (BL) and Register (AL) of 8085 microprocessor are 49H and 3AH
respectively. The contents of AL, the status of carry flag (CF) and sign flag
(SF) after executing 'SUB AL, BL' assembly language instruction, are
(1) AL=0FH; CF=1; SF=1
(2) AL=F0H; CF=0; SF=0
(3) AL=F1H; CF=1; SF=1
(4) AL=1FH; CF=1; SF=1
35. Which of the
following statement(s) regarding a linker software is/are true?
I. A function of a linker is to combine several object modules
into a single load module.
II. A function of a linker is to replace absolute references in an
object module by symbolic references to locations in other modules.
(1) Only I
(2) Only II
(3) Both I and II
(4) Neither I nor Il
36.
There are three processes P1, P2 and P3 sharing a semaphore for
synchronising a variable. Initial value of semaphore is one. Assume that
negative value of semaphore tells us how many processes are waiting in queue.
Processes access the semaphore in following order:
(a) P2 needs
to access
(b) P1 needs
to access
(c) P3 needs
to access
(d) P2 exits
critical section
(e) Pi exits
critical section
The final
value of semaphore will be:
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) -1
(4) -2
37.
In a paging system, it takes 30 ns to search translation Look-aside
Buffer (TLB) and 90 ns to access the main memory. If the TLB hit ratio is 70%,
the effective memory access time is:
(1) 48 ns
(2) 147 ns
(3) 120 ns
(4) 84 ns
38.
Match the following w.r.t. Input/Output management:
List-l
List-II
a. Device
controller i. Extracts information from the
controller
register and store it
in data
buffer
b. Device
driver ii. I/O
scheduling
c. Interrupt
handler iii. Performs data transfer
d. Kernel
I/O subsystem iv. Processing of I/O request
Codes:
a b c d
(1) iii
iv i ii
(2) ii
i iv iii
(3) iv
i ii iii
(4) i iii iv
ii
39.
Which of the following scheduling algorithms may cause starvation?
a.
First-come-first-served
b. Round
Robin
c. Priority
d. Shortest
process next
e. Shortest
remaining time first
(1) a, c and
e
(2) c, d and e
(3) b, d and
e
(4) b, c and
d
40. Distributed
operating systems consist of:
(1) Loosely coupled O.S. software on
a loosely coupled hardware
(2) Loosely
coupled O.S. software on a tightly coupled hardware
(3) Tightly
coupled O.S. software on a loosely coupled hardware
(4) Tightly
coupled O.S. software on a tightly coupled hardware
41. Software Engineering is an engineering discipline that is concerned with:
(1) how
computer systems work.
(2) theories
and methods that underlie computers and software systems.
(3) all aspects of software
production.
(4) all
aspects of computer-based systems development, including hardware, software and
process engineering.
42.
Which of the following is not one of three software product aspects
addressed by McCall's software quality factors?
(1) Ability
to undergo change.
(2)
Adaptability to new environments.
(3)
Operational characteristics
(4) Production costs and scheduling
43.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true with respect to software
architecture?
S1: Coupling
is a measure of how well the things grouped together in a module belong
together logically.
S2: Cohesion
is a measure of the degree of interaction between software modules.
S3: If
coupling is low and cohesion is high then it is easier to change one module
without affecting others.
(1) Only S1
and S2
(2) Only S3
(3) All of
S1, S2 and S3
(4) Only S1
44.
The Prototyping model of software development is:
(1) a
reasonable approach when requirements are well-defined.
(2) a useful approach when a
customer cannot define requirements clearly.
(3) the best
approach to use for projects with large development teams.
(4) a risky
model that rarely produces a meaningful product.
45.
A software design pattern used to enhance the functionality of an object
at run-time is:
(1) Adapter
(2) Decorator
(3)
Delegation
(4) Proxy
46. Match the following:
List-l
List-II
a. Affiliate
marketing i. Vendors ask partners to place logos on partner's site. If
customers click, come to vendors and buy.
b. Viral
Marketing ii. Spread your brand on the net
by word-of-mouth. Receivers will send
your
information to their friends.
c. Group
Purchasing iii. Aggregating the demands of small buyers to get a large volume.
Then negotiate a price.
d. Bartering
Online iv. Exchanging surplus Products and services
with the process administered completely online by an intermediary.
Company
receives “points” for its contribution.
Codes:
a b c d
(1) i ii
iii iv
(2) i
iii ii iv
(3) iii
ii iv i
(4) ii
iii i iv
47.
............ refers loosely to the process of semi-automatically
analysing large databases to find useful patterns.
(1) Datamining
(2) Data
Warehousing
(3) DBMS
(4) Data
mirroring
48.
Which of the following is/are true w.r.t. applications of mobile
computing?
(A)
Travelling of salesman
(B) Location
awareness services
(1) (A)
true; (B) false
(2) Both (A) and (B) are true.
(3) Both (A)
and (B) are false.
(4) (A)
false; (B) true.
49.
In 3G network, W-CDMA is also known as UMTS. The minimum spectrum
allocation required for W-CDMA is ..........
(1) 2 MHz
(2) 20 KHz
(3) 5 KHz
(4) 5 MHz
50. Which of the
following statements is/are true w.r.t. Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP)?
(A) ERP
automates and integrates majority of business processes.
(B) ERP
provides access to information in a Real Time Environment.
(C) ERP is
inexpensive to implement.
(1) (A), (B)
and (C) are false.
(2) (A) and
(B) false; (C) true.
(3) (A) and (B) true; (C) false
(4) (A)
true; (B) and (C) are false
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